# What is the remainder term in Taylor series?

## What is the remainder term in Taylor series?

The function Rk(x) is the “remainder term” and is defined to be Rk(x)=f(x)−Pk(x) , where Pk(x) is the k th degree Taylor polynomial of f centered at x=a : Pk(x)=f(a)+f'(a)(x−a)+f”(a)2!

**What is Cauchy’s form of remainder in Taylor’s theorem?**

That is, as claimed, Rn(x) = (x – c)n-1(x – a) (n – 1)! f(n)(c) This result is Taylor’s Theorem with the Cauchy remainder. There is another form of the remainder which is also useful, under the slightly stronger assumption that f(n) is continuous. This result is Taylor’s Theorem with the integral form of the remainder.

### How do you use Taylor’s formula?

More generally, if f has n+1 continuous derivatives at x=a, the Taylor series of degree n about a is n∑k=0f(k)(a)k! (x−a)k=f(a)+f′(a)(x−a)+f”(a)2!

**What is Cauchy remainder?**

The Cauchy remainder is a different form of the remainder term than the Lagrange remainder. The Cauchy remainder after terms of the Taylor series for a function expanded about a point is given by. where. (Hamilton 1952).

## Is the Taylor series converge to the function itself?

That the Taylor series does converge to the function itself must be a non-trivial fact. Most calculus textbooks would invoke a Taylor’s theorem (with Lagrange remainder), and would probably mention that it is a generalization of the mean value theorem. The proof of Taylor’s theorem in its full generality may be short but is not very illuminating.

**How to calculate Taylor’s series of sin x?**

Taylor’s Series of sin x In order to use Taylor’s formula to ﬁnd the power series expansion of sin x we have to compute the derivatives of sin(x): sin (x) = cos(x) sin (x) = − sin(x) sin (x) = − cos(x) sin(4)(x) = sin(x). Since sin(4)(x) = sin(x), this pattern will repeat.

### Is there proof of Taylor’s theorem with Lagrange remainder?

Taylor’s Theorem (with Lagrange Remainder) Most calculus textbooks would invoke a so-called Taylor’s theorem (with Lagrange remainder), and would probably mention that it is a generalization of the mean value theorem. The proof of Taylor’s theorem in its full generality may be short but is not very illuminating.

**Is there proof of Taylor’s theorem in full generality?**

The proof of Taylor’s theorem in its full generality may be short but is not very illuminating. Fortunately, a very natural derivation based only on the fundamental theorem of calculus (and a little bit of multi-variable thinking) is all one would need for most functions.